Plato Reading Guide

 

6. What is Euthyphro's second definition of what is pious? Why is this a better answer?

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Class Responses and Instructor Comments

 

>From MILDRED FERENTINO:

"What is dear to the gods is pious, what is not is impious. An action or a man dear to the gods is pious, but an action or a man hated by the gods is impious. They are not the same but quite opposite, the pious and the impious." Pg 11

 

>rm says: Yes. So, why is this answer better?

 

>From A Markovits:

Maybe bec. it leaves space for the people that should be exempted for the crimes they commited. Like for self-defence or whatever.

>rm says: Again, the issue is not so much the content of the definition, but its structure. This second attempt fits the form of a definition, whereas the first did not.

>From Avrohom:

"Why is this a better answer?"- its not a better answer! What is loved by one god can be hated by another god. So, what is pious to one god can be unpious to another.

 

>rm says: Yes, it's not a finally acceptable answer, but it's better than the previous attempt. Why?

>From KAI YU and WAI YAN:

we can ask the god for what is pious and work as a tool.

 

rm says: This definition does work as a tool in a way that the previous one does not.

 

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