Plato Reading Guide
6. What is Euthyphro's second definition of what is pious? Why is this a better answer? |
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Class Responses and Instructor Comments
>From MILDRED FERENTINO: "What is dear to the gods is pious, what is not is impious. An action or a man dear to the gods is pious, but an action or a man hated by the gods is impious. They are not the same but quite opposite, the pious and the impious." Pg 11
>rm says: Yes. So, why is this answer better?
>From A Markovits: Maybe
bec. it leaves space for the people that should be exempted for the
crimes they commited. Like for self-defence or whatever. >rm
says: Again, the issue is not so much the content of the definition,
but its structure. This second attempt fits the form of a definition,
whereas the first did not. "Why is this a better answer?"- its not a better answer! What is loved by one god can be hated by another god. So, what is pious to one god can be unpious to another.
>rm
says: Yes, it's not a finally acceptable answer, but it's better than
the previous attempt. Why? we can ask the god for what is pious and work as a tool.
rm says: This definition does work as a tool in a way that the previous one does not. |
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